Does sepsis always get to be first?

Hi all,
I am requesting a bit of help in determining what should be the principal diagnosis for the following case:
Pt has a current history of IVDA. Upon workup, he was found to be in acute renal failure and found to have possible glomerular nephritis. He was discharged a week ago following Sepsis from Streptococcal pna. He is currently still completing his antibiotic treatment for the strep infection.
The MD has listed "streptococcal sepsis currently on antibiotics" as one of his diagnosis. In addition to Acute Renal failure most likely due to Glomerular Nephritis, most likely d/t post strep infection.

Which is the most accurate principal dx in this case?
Sepsis (even though in remission & finishing abx) or Glomerular Nephritis?
Or Acute renal failure?

Thanks,
Cheree




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Comments

  • edited March 2016
    Not sepsis unless he has clinical indicators on this admission from meeting sepsis criteria
    Is glomerular nephritis an acute or chronic issue that you would be admitted for if you didn't have AKI?








  • He was admitted for the AKI and then worked up and found to have the acute GN. I was stumped because it all seemed to stem from the previous sepsis infection and wasn't sure if it would still be considered as a possible Pdx, as the doc kept listing it as a dx and linking it to the GN. However, what you said about the clinical indicators makes sense as to why it would not be the Pdx.
    Thanks for the input.
    Cheree



    Not sepsis unless he has clinical indicators on this admission from meeting sepsis criteria
    Is glomerular nephritis an acute or chronic issue that you would be admitted for if you didn't have AKI?


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