"Versus" diagnosis preceded by a symptom
Physician identifies "Falls likely multifactorial with contributions from infectious etiology (exudative pleural effusion vs complicated UTI) vs metabolic encephalopathy vs nutritional deficiency vs dementia". Obviously a query is in order, but if the doctor doesn't further specify, how is this coded and why? Thanks in advance!
Comments
Just to nitpick. "Fall" is not a medical diagnosis. (neither is "jump", "sat down" or "cheered" by the way). It is patient event. I have few questions.
1) What was the etiology of the exudative pleural effusion? Cancer? Abscess? Pneumonia? etc.
2) What makes this UTI "complicated" vs "simple". Is their anti microbial resistance? Hemmorrhagic cystitis? Pyelonephritis? Obstruction? Hydrocephalus? What?
3) What is the nutritional deficiency? Is it FTT? Mild malnutrition? Is the patient simply cachexic or under weight?
4) What type of dementia? Simple? Vascular? Alzheimers? etc.
The documentation you have currently would have been out of date and unacceptable 20 years ago, not just by today's standards.